From: Asim Khan (asimmegawatt@xxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri Aug 02 2002 - 16:37:48 GMT-3
Hi All,
I have a quick question, while reading Bruce Caslow I
came across the following statement (page 387)
"Every valid OSPF configuration must have an area 0,
so if you use only single OSPF area for your entire
network, it must be area 0".
Whereas in Jeff Doyle volume 1 on page 517, it is
written that "Single area does not have to be area 0".
So which one is correct?
Regards.
Asim Khan
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Sep 07 2002 - 19:48:14 GMT-3