From: Taimoor Husain (taimoor@xxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri Aug 02 2002 - 17:28:41 GMT-3
If you have just one area in your ospf network it does not have to be area 0
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
> Asim Khan
> Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 12:38 PM
> To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: Area 0
>
>
> Hi All,
>
> I have a quick question, while reading Bruce Caslow I
> came across the following statement (page 387)
> "Every valid OSPF configuration must have an area 0,
> so if you use only single OSPF area for your entire
> network, it must be area 0".
>
> Whereas in Jeff Doyle volume 1 on page 517, it is
> written that "Single area does not have to be area 0".
>
> So which one is correct?
>
> Regards.
>
> Asim Khan
>
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Sep 07 2002 - 19:48:14 GMT-3