From: Peter van Oene (pvo@xxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri Aug 02 2002 - 23:13:18 GMT-3
Which part of the rfc makes this point? I've never seen it.
At 05:07 PM 8/2/2002 -0400, Rahmlow, Howard F. wrote:
>I go by the RFC, and looks like a number of people have not read it yet :-)
>
>
>-----Original Message-----
>From: Carlos G Mendioroz [mailto:tron@huapi.ba.ar]
>Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 4:46 PM
>To: Asim Khan
>Cc: ccielab@groupstudy.com
>Subject: Re: Area 0
>
>
>I go with Doyle :-)
>
>
>Asim Khan wrote:
> >
> > Hi All,
> >
> > I have a quick question, while reading Bruce Caslow I
> > came across the following statement (page 387)
> > "Every valid OSPF configuration must have an area 0,
> > so if you use only single OSPF area for your entire
> > network, it must be area 0".
> >
> > Whereas in Jeff Doyle volume 1 on page 517, it is
> > written that "Single area does not have to be area 0".
> >
> > So which one is correct?
> >
> > Regards.
> >
> > Asim Khan
> >
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