From: Leigh Anne Chisholm (lac@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri Aug 02 2002 - 18:10:07 GMT-3
If you have more than one area, you must have an area 0 as a backbone area.
If you have a network with only one area, it can be any valid area integer.
I thought it funky when I first read Doyle's statement, so I tried it out and
OSPF works just fine in a single-area non-area-zero network.
What you need to consider, is whether you'll ever (through mergers,
acquisitions, corporate growth, network design requirements, etc.) have need
for a second area. If you may, area 0 is a smart choice for your single-area
network.
-- Leigh Anne
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
> Paglia, John (USPC.PCT.Hopewell)
> Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 2:28 PM
> To: 'Asim Khan'; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: RE: Area 0
>
>
> You absolutely have to have an area 0.
>
> Pags
>
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Asim Khan [SMTP:asimmegawatt@yahoo.com]
> > Sent: Friday, August 02, 2002 3:38 PM
> > To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> > Subject: Area 0
> >
> > Hi All,
> >
> > I have a quick question, while reading Bruce Caslow I
> > came across the following statement (page 387)
> > "Every valid OSPF configuration must have an area 0,
> > so if you use only single OSPF area for your entire
> > network, it must be area 0".
> >
> > Whereas in Jeff Doyle volume 1 on page 517, it is
> > written that "Single area does not have to be area 0".
> >
> > So which one is correct?
> >
> > Regards.
> >
> > Asim Khan
> >
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