RE: OSPF Multi-hop, running bgp without ip address on physical

From: Joseph L. Brunner <joe_at_affirmedsystems.com>
Date: Sat, 16 Jun 2012 09:09:37 +0000

I have two questions
1. R1(OSPF)-----------R2-----------R3(OSPF)

R1 and R3 are running ospf and R2 is not running it, is it possible to R1 and R3 to form adj.
(don't suggest tunneling )

>Why not try a bridge group, bridge 1 route ip, or some variants of the irb bridging etc. I can totally conceive of this allowing them to neighbor up, try it!

2. (loopback0)R1[e0/0]------------------[e0/0]R2(loopback0)

Both the routers run bgp using their loopback as the neighbor and update source but the physical interfaces doesn't have any ip address, are the routers will be neighbors?
(no ip unnumbered)

>are the loopback interfaces of both routers in the same subnet? I think you found your answer :) BUT - the ebgp-multihop would STILL be needed if they were in different AS's - if in the same AS of course ibgp does not care about ttl.

Try it kid

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Received on Sat Jun 16 2012 - 09:09:37 ART

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