I have two questions
1. R1(OSPF)-----------R2-----------R3(OSPF)
R1 and R3 are running ospf and R2 is not running it, is it possible to R1
and R3 to form adj.
(don't suggest tunneling )
2. (loopback0)R1[e0/0]------------------[e0/0]R2(loopback0)
Both the routers run bgp using their loopback as the neighbor and update
source
but the physical interfaces doesn't have any ip address, are the routers
will be neighbors?
(no ip unnumbered)
Please reply.
-- Best Regards, Rahul Kulkarni +91-9923030077 Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.netReceived on Thu Jun 14 2012 - 09:43:52 ART
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