Re: OSPF Multi-hop, running bgp without ip address on physical

VRF on R2. I can't think outside the box far enough with the tunneling restriction.

Regards,
Jay McMickle- CCIE #35355 (R&S)
Sent from iJay

On Jun 16, 2012, at 4:09 AM, "Joseph L. Brunner" <joe_at_affirmedsystems.com> wrote:

> I have two questions
> 1. R1(OSPF)-----------R2-----------R3(OSPF)
>
> R1 and R3 are running ospf and R2 is not running it, is it possible to R1 and R3 to form adj.
> (don't suggest tunneling )
>
>> Why not try a bridge group, bridge 1 route ip, or some variants of the irb bridging etc. I can totally conceive of this allowing them to neighbor up, try it!
>
>
> 2. (loopback0)R1[e0/0]------------------[e0/0]R2(loopback0)
>
> Both the routers run bgp using their loopback as the neighbor and update source but the physical interfaces doesn't have any ip address, are the routers will be neighbors?
> (no ip unnumbered)
>
>> are the loopback interfaces of both routers in the same subnet? I think you found your answer :) BUT - the ebgp-multihop would STILL be needed if they were in different AS's - if in the same AS of course ibgp does not care about ttl.
>
> Try it kid
>
>
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Received on Sat Jun 16 2012 - 14:50:01 ART