From: Marko Milivojevic (markom@markom.info)
Date: Mon Nov 03 2008 - 13:46:56 ARST
Who said anything about themhaving the same metric? :-)
On Mon, Nov 3, 2008 at 15:37, Shaughn Smith
<Shaughn.Smith@za.verizonbusiness.com> wrote:
> How would that affect the routing from R1 and R3 though ?
>
> Surely R3 and R1 would then have the same metric based on what you set
> when you redistributed rip into BGP ?
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Marko Milivojevic [mailto:markom@markom.info]
> Sent: Monday, November 03, 2008 5:35 PM
> To: CCIE_SP
> Cc: Cisco certification
> Subject: Re: OSPF VRF question
>
> Another approach is to manipulate metric on "RIP" route when
> redistributing it from MP-BGP into OSPF.
>
> --
> Marko
> CCIE #18427 (SP)
> My network blog: http://cisco.markom.info/
>
> On Mon, Nov 3, 2008 at 09:05, CCIE_SP <maniac.smg@gmail.com> wrote:
>> Hi Gents
>> I need some help with traffic manipulation with OSPF running over a
> VRF
>>
>> HEre is the topology
>>
>> VPNV4
>> R4 ---------------------------- R5
>>
>> OSPF area 0
>> R1 --------------------------- R3
>>
>> Ok so its pretty simple, we have OSPF running between R4 and R1 in a
> VRF and
>> between R5 and R3 in a VRF
>>
>> We also have OSPF running between R1 and R3
>>
>> R4 and R5 peer via BGP VPNV4
>>
>> Now there is a 3rd site i didnt add in but its just a site in the same
> VRF
>> running RIP as the routing protocol. Those routes from Site 3 get into
> the
>> routing tables on R1 and R3 as external routes obviously
>>
>> Now what would be the best way to tell R1 that to get to Site3 it must
> route
>> through R3 then R5 then to Site3
>>
>> Can i use OSPF distance on R5 or rather change the OSPF cost on the
>> interface on R3 that peers OSPF with R1 ?
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