From: Shaughn Smith (Shaughn.Smith@za.verizonbusiness.com)
Date: Mon Nov 03 2008 - 13:37:05 ARST
How would that affect the routing from R1 and R3 though ?
Surely R3 and R1 would then have the same metric based on what you set
when you redistributed rip into BGP ?
-----Original Message-----
From: Marko Milivojevic [mailto:markom@markom.info]
Sent: Monday, November 03, 2008 5:35 PM
To: CCIE_SP
Cc: Cisco certification
Subject: Re: OSPF VRF question
Another approach is to manipulate metric on "RIP" route when
redistributing it from MP-BGP into OSPF.
-- Marko CCIE #18427 (SP) My network blog: http://cisco.markom.info/On Mon, Nov 3, 2008 at 09:05, CCIE_SP <maniac.smg@gmail.com> wrote: > Hi Gents > I need some help with traffic manipulation with OSPF running over a VRF > > HEre is the topology > > VPNV4 > R4 ---------------------------- R5 > > OSPF area 0 > R1 --------------------------- R3 > > Ok so its pretty simple, we have OSPF running between R4 and R1 in a VRF and > between R5 and R3 in a VRF > > We also have OSPF running between R1 and R3 > > R4 and R5 peer via BGP VPNV4 > > Now there is a 3rd site i didnt add in but its just a site in the same VRF > running RIP as the routing protocol. Those routes from Site 3 get into the > routing tables on R1 and R3 as external routes obviously > > Now what would be the best way to tell R1 that to get to Site3 it must route > through R3 then R5 then to Site3 > > Can i use OSPF distance on R5 or rather change the OSPF cost on the > interface on R3 that peers OSPF with R1 ?
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