From: Mark Stephanus Chandra (mark.chandra@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Sep 15 2008 - 10:24:35 ART
Guys,
Just finished my mock lab exam 1 and just confuse with frame-relay
inverse-arp works.
if I Have topology
R1 s0/0 -----------s0/0 R2
So the question is :
When I have no frame-relay inverse-arp on s0/0 R1 but enable frame-relay
inverse-arp on R2, I'm really surprised why R1 s0/0 can have map the ip of
R2 though I have disable the frame-relay inverse-arp, it supposed cannot map
itself right ?
Can anyone explain how frame-relay inverse-arp work ?
Thanks guys
Regards
Mark Stephanus Chandra
IT Consultant
Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.net
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