From: Shaughn Smith (Shaughn.Smith@za.verizonbusiness.com)
Date: Mon Sep 15 2008 - 10:31:55 ART
When you disable inverse arp you stop that router from sending it not
receiving it
So in your case although you had it disabled it on R1, R2 was still
sending it to R1.
You need to disable it on both.
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Mark Stephanus Chandra
Sent: Monday, September 15, 2008 3:25 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Frame Relay Inverse-Arp Work
Guys,
Just finished my mock lab exam 1 and just confuse with frame-relay
inverse-arp works.
if I Have topology
R1 s0/0 -----------s0/0 R2
So the question is :
When I have no frame-relay inverse-arp on s0/0 R1 but enable frame-relay
inverse-arp on R2, I'm really surprised why R1 s0/0 can have map the ip
of
R2 though I have disable the frame-relay inverse-arp, it supposed cannot
map
itself right ?
Can anyone explain how frame-relay inverse-arp work ?
Thanks guys
Regards
Mark Stephanus Chandra
IT Consultant
Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.net
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Oct 04 2008 - 09:26:18 ART