From: Pavel Bykov (slidersv@gmail.com)
Date: Tue Sep 16 2008 - 05:54:44 ART
Hi Mark.
This usually happens when routers hear inverse-arps before you have time to
disable them. The cache does not refresh too often (if ever - not sure about
timeout values there) so the record just stays there.
Clear inarp cache (clear frame-realy inarp i believe) on the router, or
reload the router. After that it shouldn't appear there.
On Tue, Sep 16, 2008 at 10:46 AM, Mark Stephanus Chandra <
mark.chandra@gmail.com> wrote:
> Hi Pavel,
>
>
>
> Thanks for your reply,
>
>
>
> R2 send the arp and R1 have the mapping, but funny enough, I found R2 also
> have the mapping to R1 and I have disable the frame-relay inverse-arp.
>
>
>
> How can it be like this ?
>
>
>
> I have do this in mock lab exam 1 and prove works. Just want to know behind
> the technology.
>
>
>
> Regards
>
>
>
> *Mark Stephanus Chandra
> *IT Consultant
>
>
>
> *From:* Pavel Bykov [mailto:slidersv@gmail.com]
> *Sent:* 16 September 2008 14:56
> *To:* Mark Stephanus Chandra
> *Cc:* Shaughn Smith; ccielab@groupstudy.com; kynnor@gmail.com
> *Subject:* Re: Frame Relay Inverse-Arp Work
>
>
>
> If R2 SENDS the inARP, then R1 will RECEIVE it, and have the mapping.
>
> R1 does not SEND in-ARP and therefore R2 does not RECEIVE it and should not
> have the mapping.
>
> Pavel
>
> On Mon, Sep 15, 2008 at 4:05 PM, Mark Stephanus Chandra <
> mark.chandra@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> Hi Shaughn,
>
> That's right, R2 still sending it to R1, but in my understanding right now,
> when R2 sending the inverse-arp, should be only R2 can automatically map
> the
> R1 ip address right ? The question is how R1 map the R2 ip address cause as
> you know I have disable the frame-relay inverse-arp on R1.
>
>
> Regards
>
> Mark Stephanus Chandra
> IT Consultant
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Shaughn Smith [mailto:Shaughn.Smith@za.verizonbusiness.com]
> Sent: 15 September 2008 20:32
> To: Mark Stephanus Chandra; ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: RE: Frame Relay Inverse-Arp Work
>
> When you disable inverse arp you stop that router from sending it not
> receiving it
>
> So in your case although you had it disabled it on R1, R2 was still
> sending it to R1.
>
> You need to disable it on both.
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> Mark Stephanus Chandra
> Sent: Monday, September 15, 2008 3:25 PM
> To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: Frame Relay Inverse-Arp Work
>
> Guys,
>
>
>
> Just finished my mock lab exam 1 and just confuse with frame-relay
> inverse-arp works.
>
>
>
> if I Have topology
>
>
>
> R1 s0/0 -----------s0/0 R2
>
>
>
> So the question is :
>
>
>
> When I have no frame-relay inverse-arp on s0/0 R1 but enable frame-relay
> inverse-arp on R2, I'm really surprised why R1 s0/0 can have map the ip
> of
> R2 though I have disable the frame-relay inverse-arp, it supposed cannot
> map
> itself right ?
>
>
>
> Can anyone explain how frame-relay inverse-arp work ?
>
>
>
> Thanks guys
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> Regards
>
>
>
> Mark Stephanus Chandra
> IT Consultant
>
>
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>
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>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> --
> Pavel Bykov
> -------------------------------------------------
> Stop the braindumps!
> http://www.stopbraindumps.com/
>
-- Pavel Bykov ------------------------------------------------- Stop the braindumps! http://www.stopbraindumps.com/Blogs and organic groups at http://www.ccie.net
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