From: sabrina pittarel (sabri_esame@yahoo.com)
Date: Wed Sep 06 2006 - 00:48:13 ART
Hi,
assuming I have the following topology:
R1 -----------(SW)------------R2
f0/0 e0/0
with R1 and R2 running OSPF.
Should I adjust the ip ospf cost on R1 to reflect R2's cost (or viceversa)?
Having a different cost on each side of the link may cause asymmetric routing to happen (assuming a topology a little more complex than the one I drew) and I wonder if it is required in the lab to have the two interface costs matching.
I believe that when a task explicitly requires to change the cost we have to do it on both side (right?), wouldn't this be a similar case?
Sabrina
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