From: Brian McGahan (brian@cyscoexpert.com)
Date: Fri Feb 14 2003 - 17:00:54 GMT-3
Sam,
In Cisco's implementation, you don't need an area 0 as long as
you only have one area. I'm not sure whether this is part of the RFC
specification or not, but remember that RFC's are just general
guidelines. It's up to the vendor to actually implement the code, and
they can do it however they want. As long as you have Cisco boxes in
there it will be fine. If you have non-Cisco devices, I would check
with those vendors first before going ahead.
Either way you'd be better off using the non-zero area, since
when you merge you'd have to redesign your area numbering again if you
used area 0, or at least use virtual-links.
HTH
Brian McGahan, CCIE #8593
Director of Design and Implementation
brian@cyscoexpert.com
CyscoExpert Corporation
Internetwork Consulting & Training
Toll Free: 866-CyscoXP
Outside US: 847.674.3392
Fax: 847.674.2625
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf
Of
> Sam Munzani
> Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 12:56 PM
> To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Cc: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>
> Team,
>
> I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's
opinion
> on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
> network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
> network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.
>
> When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at
all),
> it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF needs
area
> 0 to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device with area
555
> configuration?
>
> What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading
OSPF
> RFC to figure out all technical details.
>
> Thanks,
> Sam Munzani
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