From: George Cassels (glcassels3@nc.rr.com)
Date: Fri Feb 14 2003 - 17:03:47 GMT-3
From what I know of OSPF you can run it with whatever area number you want
with a single area configuration. If you ever want to have a multi-OSPF
area design though you will have to have an area 0. The main reason for
this is because OSPF is almost like a distance vectored protocol when
routing between areas using the area ID to make sure it has no loops.
Let me know if I am off here anyone...
George Cassels
CW2, US Army
CCDP, CCNP, MCSE (4.0, 2000)
----- Original Message -----
> From: "Sam Munzani" <sam@munzani.com>
> To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
> Cc: <cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com>
> Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 1:56 PM
> Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>
>
> > Team,
> >
> > I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's opinion
> on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
> network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
> network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.
> >
> > When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at
all),
> it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF needs area
0
> to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device with area 555
> configuration?
> >
> > What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading OSPF
> RFC to figure out all technical details.
> >
> > Thanks,
> > Sam Munzani
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