From: Howard C. Berkowitz (hcb@gettcomm.com)
Date: Wed Oct 02 2002 - 15:27:38 GMT-3
At 1:51 PM -0400 10/2/02, Peter Wodle wrote:
>I wonder if the following OSPF Design is valid/workable?
>
>Have the area 0 with a no of routers. 1 ABR links area 0 to Area 1.
>another ABR links area 0 to Area 2. So far no issues. But then we
>have R12 that connects area 1 & area 2 togather i.e. R12 has one
>interface in area 1 and one one interface in area 2. R12 has no
>interface in area 0. So, it is an ABR (right?) but has no link to
>area 0. Could this could lead to area 1 & area 2 exhange routes via
>this "backdoor" router?R12
>
>Can we do this? I can see it is bad design but...
Not in the present standard or most (if not all) Cisco
implementations. There is a proposal in the IETF OSPF Working Group
to do something close to it:
http://www.ietf.org/internet-drafts/draft-ietf-ospf-mlinks-03.txt
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