From: Peter Wodle (peter_wodle@hotmail.com)
Date: Wed Oct 02 2002 - 14:51:41 GMT-3
I wonder if the following OSPF Design is valid/workable?
Have the area 0 with a no of routers. 1 ABR links area 0 to Area 1. another
ABR links area 0 to Area 2. So far no issues. But then we have R12 that
connects area 1 & area 2 togather i.e. R12 has one interface in area 1 and
one one interface in area 2. R12 has no interface in area 0. So, it is an
ABR (right?) but has no link to area 0. Could this could lead to area 1 &
area 2 exhange routes via this "backdoor" router?R12
Can we do this? I can see it is bad design but...
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