From: CCIE-Maillist (CCIE-Maillist@xxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri May 17 2002 - 12:58:47 GMT-3
Is it okay if a router says that OSPF area 0 is inactive as long as everything
is working?
I have a router in area 5, connected to a router with interfaces in area 0. The
adj. forms and is full. There are no errors on authenication. As the router in
area 5 is connected to a router with interfaces in area 0, it does not need a
virtual link (as I understand it).
When the router is in area 5, everything seems to work- routes from area 0 area
on this router and it can communicate fine. The router in area 0 has the route
s from area 5 and even redistributed routers from the RIP network connected to
area 5. Everyone can communicate fine but the router in area 5 says that area 0
is inactive.
I tried moving the router in area 5 and changing the area to area 0, everything
worked fine and area 0 was active, using the same router ids, and network stat
ements (modified for area 0).
So, my question is- is it every okay for a router to say that "area 0 is inacti
ve"?
Thanks for the help!
David Davis
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