Re: Does dialer load 1 either need 2 dial strings?

From: Manny Gonzalez (manny@xxxxxxx)
Date: Thu Jan 03 2002 - 01:46:51 GMT-3


   
Do you have AUTO ROLLOVER ? If not (or even if you do) Try setting up
the strings to dial the SECOND number on both ends... This would allow
the routers to ALWAYS dial an available line or to use the available
FIRST line for calling the other side. Remeber the router uses the FIRST
SPID when it picks up the phone to call the other side. If you do not
have ROLLOVER, then you dial the first string, the second router tries
to dial back and guess what? The number is busy but there is no rollover
to kick it to the other line.

Did that make sense?

Also, for kicks, are you using PPP Encap? and AUTHENTICATION? Also make
sure you have PPP Multilink in the BRI as well as the DIALER intf if
using dialer profiles. Sometimes if it is not on both, it will not work.
There are so many variables in ISDN it depends on EXACTLY what you're
trying to do...

I THINK! :-))

Manny Gonzalez, CCIE Wannabe

kyle prevey wrote:
>
> I have seen a lot of configs on CCO with dialer load-threshold 1 either and
> no second dial string. When I do this with the debug on it shows it is
> attmepting to bring the second link up because it meets the load threshold
> of 1 but it never comes up. When I add a second dial string or map, it
> comes up but flaps like a son of gun. The sh dialer says the flapping is
> from the overload. I saw nothing for OSPF hellos or anything else causing
> it. This could definitely be an issue during the real thing if asked to
> have both links active. Once I took the second dial string off the flapping
> stopped. The configs in the bootcamp lab show with a second string and
> without. So what is right?
>
> I guess in the end it could be the IOS version also since most are riddled
> with bugs.
>
> Kyle
>



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