From: Martin, Chris (chris@xxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri May 25 2001 - 11:06:59 GMT-3
I believe the traffic flows from R2 to R1. R1 handles all processes to area
0. R2 never gets to area 0, however its packets get to area0 through R1.
Physcially R2 is attached to R1, so its packets has to passthrough R1. I
dont believe R1 forwards R2 packets to area 0 but does its own processing
back to R2.
Correct me if im wrong..
----- Original Message -----
From: "eugeneonline" <eugeneonline@yahoo.com>
To: "ANDY NWEBUBE" <wizdata@hotmail.com>; <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent: Friday, May 25, 2001 6:31 AM
Subject: Re: Virtual Links
> Hi Andy,
>
> Without the Vlink, R2 is not part os the OSPF domain at all. With Vlink R2
becomes part of the OSPf domain and should calculate spf topology to go
through R1 for all networks (R1 is tunnel). Therefore I believe next hop
will always be R1 for all R1 networks and in fact all OSPF networks. This is
only logical thinking though, I have not confirmed confirmed in lab. HTH.
>
> Regards
>
>
> Eugene Akhanoba
>
> ANDY NWEBUBE <wizdata@hotmail.com> wrote:
> Guys,
>
> I wonder if their is anybody who remembers the discussion on Virtual
> Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem to find it.
>
> The scenario was something like this:
> ________ _______ _______
> |Area 0| |Area1| |Area2|
> | R0 |--| R1 |--| R2 |
> |______| |_____| |_____|
>
> There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1. Traffic needs to
> get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the virtual link has to
> use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed R1 (in Area 1)
> to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actuall flow just to R1
from
> R2.
>
> I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on the
archives.
> Quite interesting issues.
>
> Regards,
> Andy
>
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