From: Curtis Call (curtiscall@xxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri May 25 2001 - 21:58:43 GMT-3
Traffic from R2 to R1 will go directly from R2 to R1. Remember that in
order to have R2 be a virtual link it will have an interface in Area 1,
therefore to reach any destination in Area 1 it will always use the
intra-area route. Besides, Virtual Links are not tunnels, you can't
transport traffic over them, they just carry routing information, the
traffic still goes hop by hop throughout the OSPF domain.
At 12:54 AM 5/25/01, you wrote:
>Guys,
>
>I wonder if their is anybody who remembers the discussion on Virtual
>Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem to find it.
>
>The scenario was something like this:
>________ _______ _______
>|Area 0| |Area1| |Area2|
>| R0 |--| R1 |--| R2 |
>|______| |_____| |_____|
>
>There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1. Traffic needs to
>get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the virtual link has to
>use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed R1 (in Area 1)
>to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actuall flow just to R1 from R2
.
>
>I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on the
>archives. Quite interesting issues.
>
>Regards,
>Andy
>
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