From: Mas Kato (tealp729@xxxxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 19:57:17 GMT-3
Hmmm...I would imagine non-unique area numbers would make those areas
appear partitioned. I suppose intra-area routing for those areas would
work, but inter-area routing would be a mess if any area summarization
was going on (IA-route ambiguity).
So am I the weakest link?
Mas Kato
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
Chuck Larrieu
Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:29 PM
To: Niall El-Assaad; ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: RE: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
The statement is not correct. If there is more than one OSPF area, then
there MUST be an area 0. If there is a single area, it can be anything
you
want. This actually makes sense in terms of the OSPF standard. By
definition, all traffic in such a case would be intra area traffic, and
the
routers would not be concerned with exiting the area.
Now for the fun one. In a multiple area OSPF network, all area numbers
must
be unique - true or false? Why?
Chuck
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Niall El-Assaad
Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:04 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF configuration must
have
an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area for your entire network
it
must be area 0".
Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area it doesn't matter
what it
is? Does it?
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