From: Mas Kato (tealp729@xxxxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 20:08:18 GMT-3
Area 51...That had to be Steve Peterson's Mentor Technologies (formerly
GK) OSPF workshop. We did do single area OSPF and demonstrated that the
single area did not have to be identiified as area 0.
Regards,
Mas Kato
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
Erick B.
Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:56 PM
To: Frank Jimenez; Niall El-Assaad; ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Re: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
I beg to differ. If you have a multi-area OSPF network
then area 0.0.0.0 is required. If you have a network
and all routers are in the same area then you could
put everything in area 51 and have no area 0.
This works. I have done it with IOS. It is explained
this way in the OSPF class I went to awhile back...
and in some books I've read in the past but can't
recall offhand.
--- Frank Jimenez <franjime@cisco.com> wrote:
> Niall,
> No, this is correct. Every OSPF network must
> have a backbone area, and 0.0.0.0 is reserved for
> the backbone. Therefore, if you have an OSPF
> network with only one area, this single area must be
> the backbone, and must therefore be identified as
> Area 0.
>
> Frank Jimenez, CCIE #5738
> Systems Engineer
> Cisco Systems, Inc.
> franjime@cisco.com
>
>
> At 10:03 PM 04/30/2001 +0100, Niall El-Assaad wrote:
> >In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF
> configuration must have
> >an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area
> for your entire network it
> >must be area 0".
> >
> >Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area
> it doesn't matter what it
> >is? Does it?
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