From: Chuck Larrieu (chuck@xxxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri Apr 27 2001 - 12:21:15 GMT-3
Hhhmmmmm....... I'm not sure this is exactly correct, but I am certainly
open to a good explanation, as I am a bit unsure myself.
But I believe that the router acts based on the routing protocol in
question. If the routing protocol is rooted in the classful world (e.g.
RIPv1 or IGRP) then decisions are based on classful behaviour. Otherwise
(OSPF, BGP) the router will behave according to classless requirements.
Has anyone done a specific experiment to test this?
Chuck
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of Atif
Awan
Sent: Friday, April 27, 2001 2:57 PM
To: radhaccie@hotmail.com; ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Re: ip classless
This command changes the router's lookup algorithm. No doubt OSPF is a
classless protocol but it only provides the router with the routes, it does
not in any way affect the way a router determines how to forward packets
that is using the classful or the classless algorithm ).
>From: "radha rani" <radhaccie@hotmail.com>
>Reply-To: "radha rani" <radhaccie@hotmail.com>
>To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
>Subject: ip classless
>Date: Fri, 27 Apr 2001 10:00:06 -0400
>
>I have a question re: ip classless. My understanding is that if there is
>no
>specific route for a subnet in the routing table, this command allows the
>router to forward packets to unknown destinations using the default route.
>This being the case when the destination is a subnet of a network which is
>known to the router.
>
>My question is : since OSPF is a classless protocol, why do I need this
>command to have the router forward packets using the default route. I see
>this all the time where the router will not utilize the default route until
>this command is added.
>
>I can unserstand needing it with IGRP/RIP but why with OSPF?
>
>Can someone expalin. Thanks so much.
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Thu Jun 13 2002 - 10:29:59 GMT-3