From: gb@xxxxxxxxxx
Date: Fri Apr 27 2001 - 12:24:19 GMT-3
That is not exactly true. Without ip classless a router will not use a
default route if the destination is in the same CLASSFULL network as one of
the routers interfaces.
IE
if you have routes for 10.1.1.0/24 and an interface with address 10.1.2.1/24
and a packet with destination of 10.1.3.0/24 that packet would be dropped
before it is forwarded to the default gateway.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Atif Awan" <atifawan@hotmail.com>
To: <radhaccie@hotmail.com>; <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent: Friday, April 27, 2001 2:57 PM
Subject: Re: ip classless
> This command changes the router's lookup algorithm. No doubt OSPF is a
> classless protocol but it only provides the router with the routes, it
does
> not in any way affect the way a router determines how to forward packets (
> that is using the classful or the classless algorithm ).
>
> >From: "radha rani" <radhaccie@hotmail.com>
> >Reply-To: "radha rani" <radhaccie@hotmail.com>
> >To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> >Subject: ip classless
> >Date: Fri, 27 Apr 2001 10:00:06 -0400
> >
> >I have a question re: ip classless. My understanding is that if there is
> >no
> >specific route for a subnet in the routing table, this command allows the
> >router to forward packets to unknown destinations using the default
route.
> >This being the case when the destination is a subnet of a network which
is
> >known to the router.
> >
> >My question is : since OSPF is a classless protocol, why do I need this
> >command to have the router forward packets using the default route. I
see
> >this all the time where the router will not utilize the default route
until
> >this command is added.
> >
> >I can unserstand needing it with IGRP/RIP but why with OSPF?
> >
> >Can someone expalin. Thanks so much.
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Thu Jun 13 2002 - 10:29:59 GMT-3