Re: IPV6 vs IPv4 addresses

From: naveen M S (navin.ms@gmail.com)
Date: Sat Mar 14 2009 - 18:11:23 ARST


2^128 - 2^32 is not equal to 2^(128-32).

The powers can be added or subtracted only when we mulitply or divide the
numbers respectively.

The answer for that question is "None of the above".

On Fri, Mar 13, 2009 at 5:59 AM, slo <nebulite@gmail.com> wrote:

> IPv6 = 2^128
> IPv4 = 2^32
>
> IPv6/IPv4 = 2^(128-32) = 2^96
>
> If you want know How many more than IPv4 , I think is 2^(96-1) = 2^95
>
> So, a, b, c, d, all are wrong.
>
> I will choice C 2^96
>
> -------
> slo
>
> Best Regards!
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> Software Business Department
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>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> Tharak Abraham
> Sent: Friday, March 13, 2009 8:32 PM
> To: Cisco certification
> Subject: OT : IPV6 vs IPv4 addresses
>
> One of my friend got a question as follows in a tech exam.
>
> Looks easy but mind the word "more"
>
> Q.How many more IP addresses are available with IPv6 than IPv4 ?
>
> a: 2^128
> b: 2^92
> c. 2^64
> d. 2^32
>
>
> Best Regards,
> Tharak Abraham
>
>
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