From: Paul Cosgrove (paul.cosgrove@heanet.ie)
Date: Fri Aug 29 2008 - 20:29:04 ART
I think this has been discussed before, and the solution was to
temporarily add a loopback to area 0. The loopback is later removed
from area 0 after the virtual link has been established. The virtual
link is considered to be part of area 0.
Paul.
Fahad Khan wrote:
> Dear willy,
>
> Area 2 is the transit area in this case, and as we know that a transit area
> must have full information of backbone area (area 0). but in this case you
> have area 1 and you have to connect it to area 3. can you believe that area
> 1's information will enter area 2?? Never...In multi-area ospf, two
> areas can communicate with eachother via "backbone area" (area 0). So here
> you can not have area 2 as transit area for connecting areas 1 and 3.
>
> Virtual-link is mainly used for
>
> - Connecting a non back-bone area with the back-bone area via any transit
> area (must not be stub)
>
> - Connecting two back-bone areas of different OSPF domains via any transit
> area (non back-bone)
>
> HTH
>
> On 8/29/08, Willy Meier <wmeiers@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Hi,
>>
>> Is possible to bring up a virtual-link between two routers without having
>> the area 0 configured? The virtual-link would the the area 0 for the other
>> areas after it bring up.
>>
>> Scenario
>>
>> virtual-link
>> <------------------->
>> R1-----------------R2----------------------R3-----------------------R4
>> A1 A2 A3
>>
>> I was doing an IE core lab with this topology and I had to put into area o
>> the L0 of R3 to bring up the virtual-link, but seeing the solution they
>> don't do it, just configure the virtual-link and it goes up.
>>
>> Thanks,
>>
>> wm
>>
>>
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