From: Fahad Khan (fahad.khan@gmail.com)
Date: Fri Aug 29 2008 - 19:08:48 ART
Dear willy,
Area 2 is the transit area in this case, and as we know that a transit area
must have full information of backbone area (area 0). but in this case you
have area 1 and you have to connect it to area 3. can you believe that area
1's information will enter area 2?? Never...In multi-area ospf, two
areas can communicate with eachother via "backbone area" (area 0). So here
you can not have area 2 as transit area for connecting areas 1 and 3.
Virtual-link is mainly used for
- Connecting a non back-bone area with the back-bone area via any transit
area (must not be stub)
- Connecting two back-bone areas of different OSPF domains via any transit
area (non back-bone)
HTH
On 8/29/08, Willy Meier <wmeiers@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> Hi,
>
> Is possible to bring up a virtual-link between two routers without having
> the area 0 configured? The virtual-link would the the area 0 for the other
> areas after it bring up.
>
> Scenario
>
> virtual-link
> <------------------->
> R1-----------------R2----------------------R3-----------------------R4
> A1 A2 A3
>
> I was doing an IE core lab with this topology and I had to put into area o
> the L0 of R3 to bring up the virtual-link, but seeing the solution they
> don't do it, just configure the virtual-link and it goes up.
>
> Thanks,
>
> wm
>
>
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