Re: Virtual Link Behaviour

From: Mark Stephanus Chandra (mark.chandra@gmail.com)
Date: Tue Jul 29 2008 - 05:26:16 ART

Yes, I Understand now, by creating virtual link, we actually make the router
become a member of Area 0 right ?

That a lot guys, really appreciate your comment

On 7/29/08, CCIE3000 <ccie3000@googlemail.com> wrote:
>
> Yep, Ibrahim has explained it.
>
> The tunnel isn't terminated onto the router which is an internal router of
> area 1 (I think).
>
> The tunnel is terminated on a ABR of area 1 so that the area range command
> can be used on both ABR's of area 1, hence you don't break the summary of
> the loopbacks.
>
> If you use virtual-links then you can get your network running okay, but
> you will break the task where it says you need to summarise the loopbacks.
>
> Si
>
>
> On 7/29/08, Ibrahim kabir <kebramccie@live.com> wrote:
>>
>>
>> if I could remember clearly. The task says R3 should c a summary of the
>> loopbacks from area 0. A Virtual-link through that area will definately make
>> the Router R3 a memeber of area 0 by extension. That part of the solution I
>> guess is quite clear.
>>
>>
>>
>> To anwer as to why a tunnel was used, I guess by tunnelling fron the ABR's
>> of area 0 and area 2 in turn makes router R1 a member of area 0 coz ospf
>> area 0 is running over the tunnel. Mind you it doesnt in anyway make the
>> internal ospf router R3 part of that area.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> And dnt forget on The other ABR R1 to do the are 0 range command
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> Kabir K Ibrahim
>> B.sc CCNA CCNP CCDA CCDP MCP
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
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>
> 

-- 
Mark Stephanus Chandra
IT Consultant

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