From: Bill Eyer (beyer@optonline.net)
Date: Tue Jul 29 2008 - 06:59:05 ART
That's right, the router is in area 0 always when using a virtual link.
However, the GRE tunnel can be in any area you want it to be in ( that's
one the router of course ). Therefore if your remote area is 2, and
your transit area is one, you can use a tunnel to extend area 2 over to
area 0.
Bill
Mark Stephanus Chandra wrote:
> Yes, I Understand now, by creating virtual link, we actually make the router
> become a member of Area 0 right ?
>
> That a lot guys, really appreciate your comment
>
>
> On 7/29/08, CCIE3000 <ccie3000@googlemail.com> wrote:
>
>> Yep, Ibrahim has explained it.
>>
>> The tunnel isn't terminated onto the router which is an internal router of
>> area 1 (I think).
>>
>> The tunnel is terminated on a ABR of area 1 so that the area range command
>> can be used on both ABR's of area 1, hence you don't break the summary of
>> the loopbacks.
>>
>> If you use virtual-links then you can get your network running okay, but
>> you will break the task where it says you need to summarise the loopbacks.
>>
>> Si
>>
>>
>> On 7/29/08, Ibrahim kabir <kebramccie@live.com> wrote:
>>
>>> if I could remember clearly. The task says R3 should c a summary of the
>>> loopbacks from area 0. A Virtual-link through that area will definately make
>>> the Router R3 a memeber of area 0 by extension. That part of the solution I
>>> guess is quite clear.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> To anwer as to why a tunnel was used, I guess by tunnelling fron the ABR's
>>> of area 0 and area 2 in turn makes router R1 a member of area 0 coz ospf
>>> area 0 is running over the tunnel. Mind you it doesnt in anyway make the
>>> internal ospf router R3 part of that area.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> And dnt forget on The other ABR R1 to do the are 0 range command
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> Kabir K Ibrahim
>>> B.sc CCNA CCNP CCDA CCDP MCP
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
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