From: Jason Madsen (madsen.jason@gmail.com)
Date: Sat May 10 2008 - 11:18:27 ART
Dave,
seems as though you could use virtual links between R4&R5, R3&R4, R2&R3, and
R1&R2...I agree, doesn't look as though you'd need one between R6&R7 since
R6 is already touching area 0.
as far as the virtual links go, I've never seen multiple virtual links back
to back. it's just a suggestion to try. the univercd doesn't make mention
of using virtual links in tandem like this. i guess if that doesn't work,
you might have to go the gre route, although i suspect using these virtual
links in tandem will work snice since each virtual link becomes an extension
of area 0.
good luck. let know how it turns out...this is pretty neat.
Jason
On Sat, May 10, 2008 at 2:43 AM, Shine <shinepjoseph@iprimus.com.au> wrote:
> I think the answer is Virtual link between R1&R2, R2&R3, R3&R4, R4&R5 and
> R6&R7.
>
> Regards,
> Shine
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
> dave
> dave
> Sent: Saturday, 10 May 2008 4:42 PM
> To: Cisco certification
> Subject: OSPF Question for connecting to Area 0
>
> Hi Expert,
>
> I dont have any area as a stub area then how will i connect the all area
> to area0 & how will able to see the lookback addres in area100 on router
> R7.
> Can it possible with out using GRE tunnel?
>
>
> * loopback in area 100<==* R1 <--Area10---> R2 <--Area20 --->R3
> <---Area30---->R4<---Area40---->R5<-- *Area0 *--->R6 <---Area50---->R7
>
> Regards,
> Mukesh
>
>
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