From: YourPal (dearprudence28@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Mar 17 2008 - 10:08:30 ART
Hi Group,
Below is the link to the OSPF "default-information originate" command:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_3/iproute/command/reference/ip2_c1g.html#wp1038457
My config is as follows:
R1:
!
router ospf 1
default-information originate route-map OSPF_COND_DEFAULT
!
route-map OSPF_COND_DEFAULT permit 10
match ip address prefix-list VLAN501
!
ip prefix-list VLAN501 seq 5 permit 50.1.0.0/16
!
My understanding from DocCD is, without the "always" keyword the default
network must reside in the routing table, and you must satisfy the route-map
before the software generates a default route into the OSPF routing domain.
In my config, I don't use the "always" keyword and I include a route-map
which "tracks" int Lo501. The router doesn't have an existing default route.
Contrary to my understanding, it generates a default route into OSPF.
Results below:
R1#sh ip ro 50.1.0.0
Routing entry for 50.1.0.0/16
Known via "connected", distance 0, metric 0 (connected, via interface)
Redistributing via ospf 1
Advertised by bgp 1
Routing Descriptor Blocks:
* directly connected, via Loopback501
Route metric is 0, traffic share count is 1
R1#sh ip ro 0.0.0.0
% Network not in table
R1#sh ip os da
OSPF Router with ID (201.1.1.1) (Process ID 1)
Type-5 AS External Link States
Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Tag
0.0.0.0 201.1.1.1 1021 0x80000001 0x000ED7 1
I believe I understand the concept wrongly. Anyone kindly share your view?
Thank you.
BR,
Emil
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