From: Donghai Zhang (zdh1207@gmail.com)
Date: Mon Dec 10 2007 - 05:31:51 ART
If the VLAN-A on SW1 and SW2 must be a same vlan, there would be at
least BPDU packets cross the wan link. Only routed ports terminat vlan
and mac headers. However, in your scenario,the vlan on each switch can
not be a same vlan,because they are seperated by routed ports. So
there is no vlan overhead between the two swtches. There's a way to
convey vlan beween routers.It's ip bridge,or IRB.That is out of the
question.
2007/12/10, henro <ugwuadu@gmail.com>:
> Hi All,
>
> I have the following scenario
>
>
> VLAN-A =====SW1-f0/1==============================SW2-f0/1==========VLAN-A
> 10.10.10.1/30
> 10.10.10.2/30
>
> How can I extend VLAN-A across the WAN link between SW1 and SW2 as
> shown above without introducing overhead.
>
> Thank you.
>
> Henro
>
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