From: Alexei Monastyrnyi (alexeim@orcsoftware.com)
Date: Thu May 04 2006 - 12:20:11 ART
Just 2 cents here...
If an OSPF router has 2 areas and they are of different numbers, one of
the areas has to be 0 otherwise this router will never be an ABR from
say area 2 to area 1 in the following topology
A2---R1---A1---R2---A3
R2 will never know about area 2. This may indicate "an invalid area" in
some sense.... But as it was pointed, it is a bad design and will not be
reflected in any way in show ip ospf output, nothing similar to area
INACTIVE or so...
A.
on 04/05/2006 16:43 Nick Griffin wrote:
> Before the virtual link is established you'll have inconsistencies in
> the ospf database on the routers, which is how you know you have lack
> of connectivity to area 0, or a discontinguous area 0. This doesn't
> make the area invalid, it's a design problem. So, if your missing
> routes, and you have areas connected through non area 0 areas, build
> your tunnel, or VL to establish connectivity.
>
> aminhaq@yahoo.com wrote:
>> Hi All,
>> (Except those who think this is a dump quetion and want to ask me
>> whether I pass written or not)!
>>
>> How can I check an area in ospf is an invalid area if it is not
>> connected to the backbone area? I configured area 0, area 1 and area
>> 2. Area 1 is connected in between the two. Before setting up the
>> virtual-link I want to see the validity of area 2. I tried debug ip
>> ospf adj/packet/event but didn't get that info.
>>
>> Please help.
>>
>> Thanks in adv.
>>
>> Amin
>>
>> _______________________________________________________________________
>> Subscription information may be found at:
>> http://www.groupstudy.com/list/CCIELab.html
>
> _______________________________________________________________________
> Subscription information may be found at:
> http://www.groupstudy.com/list/CCIELab.html
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Thu Jun 01 2006 - 06:33:20 ART