From: Brian McGahan (bmcgahan@internetworkexpert.com)
Date: Wed Jan 04 2006 - 23:46:00 GMT-3
Yes. If you look at the "show ip ospf interface" output you'll see that
the virtual-link is an interface in area 0.
HTH,
Brian McGahan, CCIE #8593
bmcgahan@internetworkexpert.com
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> -----Original Message-----
> From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf
Of
> tj.mitchell
> Sent: Wednesday, January 04, 2006 8:30 PM
> To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: Dumb OSPF Question
>
> Guys -
>
> This is a dumb OSPF question that I believe I know the answer just
want to
> confirm.
>
>
>
> When using a virtual link to connect an area through another area (the
> reason virtual-links were created).
>
>
>
> That makes the far end router (non-area 0 router) an ABR right,
because
> area
> 0 is now there through the virtual link even though the statement
"network
> x.x.x.x x.x.x.x area 0" isn't under the process correct?
>
>
>
> Basically checking due to I want to summarize a loopback without using
the
> ip ospf network ptp command, but I have virtual-link to that router.
I'm
> using the network command to advertise the network and to summarize
> normally
> you would do that on the ABR and the summary-address command is used
for
> redistributed routes.
>
>
>
> Thanks
>
>
>
> T.J. Mitchell
>
>
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Wed Feb 01 2006 - 07:45:47 GMT-3