From: tj.mitchell (tj.mitchell@verizon.net)
Date: Wed Jan 04 2006 - 23:30:20 GMT-3
Guys -
This is a dumb OSPF question that I believe I know the answer just want to
confirm.
When using a virtual link to connect an area through another area (the
reason virtual-links were created).
That makes the far end router (non-area 0 router) an ABR right, because area
0 is now there through the virtual link even though the statement "network
x.x.x.x x.x.x.x area 0" isn't under the process correct?
Basically checking due to I want to summarize a loopback without using the
ip ospf network ptp command, but I have virtual-link to that router. I'm
using the network command to advertise the network and to summarize normally
you would do that on the ABR and the summary-address command is used for
redistributed routes.
Thanks
T.J. Mitchell
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