From: ccie2be (ccie2be@nyc.rr.com)
Date: Tue Apr 26 2005 - 14:50:32 GMT-3
Hi guys,
I need some help figuring out how this works.
Let's say there are 2 ipv6 sites separated by an ipv4 domain.
ipv6 -------- r-A --- ipv4 ----- r-B ----- ipv6
I want to configure a 6to 4 tunnel between R-A and R-B.
According to the Cisco doc's, I don't need to configure a tunnel destination
on either side of the tunnel.
See this link:
http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios123/123cgcr/ipv6
_c/sa_tunv6.htm#wp1037465
Embedded in the ipv6 address of the tunnel interface is an ipv4 address
that's local to the router on which this tunnel is configured.
That being the case, how does the one end of the tunnel find the other end?
I assume in this example, R-A and R-B don't have to share a common link,
correct?
TIA, Tim
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