From: Peter van Oene (pvo@USERMAIL.COM)
Date: Mon Jul 05 2004 - 11:08:16 GMT-3
At 09:53 AM 7/5/2004, Richard Dumoulin wrote:
>"Why would AS1 and AS2 be in the same IGP
>domain?"
>
>It is not a real network, just a practice scenario. The author may want us
>to practice weird things.
ahh.. good to practise things that are a bad idea in practice ;-) gotta
love the ccie.
>"Also, why would BGP routes be in the IGP?"
>
>The BGP routes are not in the IGP but the next hop are which in this case
>are the bgp peering ip addresses configured under the bgp routing process,
next-hops are what the IGP is all about in bgp networks as I'm sure you
know. They'll always be there. However, your IGP next hop is a derivative
of your BGP next-hop, which in this case is controlled by lpref. If you
have an IGP path to a local destination that transits an external network,
your network is broken ;-)
>--Richard
>
>-----Original Message-----
>From: Peter van Oene [mailto:pvo@usermail.com]
>Sent: lunes, 05 de julio de 2004 15:45
>To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
>Subject: Re: BGP indecision !?!?
>
>
>At 05:32 PM 7/4/2004, Richard Dumoulin wrote:
> >Hi group,
> >
> >Suppose the following scenario: Ra and Rb are in the same BGP AS 1.
> >Both are connected to another AS 2. AS 2 sends routes to AS1. And we
> >are asked to configure in such a way that Ra will prefer to exit to AS2
> >via Rb instead of directly. One way is to increase the local preference
> >on Rb. But what happens if the next hop of those routes has a lower igp
> >metric through AS 2 ? Should the metrics be manipulated so that Ra
> >traffic is actually sent through Rb ?
>
>Pref is your tool here. Why would AS1 and AS2 be in the same IGP
>domain? Also, why would BGP routes be in the IGP?
>
>
>
>
> >Thank you
> >
> >--Richard
> >
> >
> >
> >
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