From: Richard Dumoulin (richard.dumoulin@vanco.es)
Date: Mon Jul 05 2004 - 10:53:52 GMT-3
"Why would AS1 and AS2 be in the same IGP
domain?"
It is not a real network, just a practice scenario. The author may want us
to practice weird things.
"Also, why would BGP routes be in the IGP?"
The BGP routes are not in the IGP but the next hop are which in this case
are the bgp peering ip addresses configured under the bgp routing process,
--Richard
-----Original Message-----
From: Peter van Oene [mailto:pvo@usermail.com]
Sent: lunes, 05 de julio de 2004 15:45
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Re: BGP indecision !?!?
At 05:32 PM 7/4/2004, Richard Dumoulin wrote:
>Hi group,
>
>Suppose the following scenario: Ra and Rb are in the same BGP AS 1.
>Both are connected to another AS 2. AS 2 sends routes to AS1. And we
>are asked to configure in such a way that Ra will prefer to exit to AS2
>via Rb instead of directly. One way is to increase the local preference
>on Rb. But what happens if the next hop of those routes has a lower igp
>metric through AS 2 ? Should the metrics be manipulated so that Ra
>traffic is actually sent through Rb ?
Pref is your tool here. Why would AS1 and AS2 be in the same IGP
domain? Also, why would BGP routes be in the IGP?
>Thank you
>
>--Richard
>
>
>
>
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