From: Scott, Tyson C (tyson.scott@hp.com)
Date: Fri Mar 26 2004 - 16:06:00 GMT-3
Will an IP unnumbered interface work? I don't think it does. I believe
you need to have an IP address on the interface for OSPF. I had the
following scenario on a practice lab I did. I did the scenario twice.
I believed it worked in the newer code but I could not get the RIP
routes that router4 new about to SW1. I had other RIP routes coming to
router3 from another router that SW1 would learn but not the routes from
R4 RIP. This is another subject though.
My main point is that in either situation, with the two codes I
tried it on (12.2(2)T and 12.2(15)T), the GRE tunnel would not work
unless it had an IP address.
It is my understanding that unless the test states not to add IP
addresses and interfaces to a router you can do it. But if in doubt ask
the proctor with a statement of what you are looking to do and that it
doesn't state not to can you do it.
R5___
|
FRAME HUB & SPOKE
OSPF AREA0------R3____OTHER IGP
___|
__R4___
| |
RIP OSPF STUB
BB2_| |_SW1____Area0
Regards,
Tyson Scott
Agilent Problem Management Team
Managed Network Services
Phone: 313-583-5812
Pager: 877-997-0811
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Edwards, Andrew M
Sent: Friday, March 26, 2004 12:00 PM
To: christopher snow; Ashok Verma (ashoverm)
Cc: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: RE: OSPF ON GRE Tunnel
Effectively building a tunnel and putting it into the backbone of area 0
is what a virtual-link does... So you are just going to need to build
your own virtual link 8)
-----Original Message-----
From: christopher snow [mailto:cbsnow31@yahoo.com]
Sent: Friday, March 26, 2004 5:52 AM
To: Ashok Verma (ashoverm)
Cc: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Re: OSPF ON GRE Tunnel
Do an ipunnumbered of an interface that is already in area 0.
Chris
"Ashok Verma (ashoverm)" <ashoverm@cisco.com> wrote:
Hi all
For all OSPF gurus.....here is a very good query....
R1--------R2-----R3
Between R2 and R3 ospf area 0 is running, and between R1 and R2 area 3,
On R1 I have a loopback address ( 1.1.1.1) and my requirement is to put
it in area 1. And I should not be using the virtual link. I should have
1.1.1.1 in R3's routing table.Is any way to do it .
As per my views, there are two ways .....
Solution 1: Use Tunnel between R2 and R1 and then assign the tunnel IP
in ospf area 0 ...........But the question is In real lab we are not
allowed to use any extra ip....so can we still use this solution using
the IP unnumberd.( in that case what ip we should be putting in area 0
??)
Solution 2: Use multiple process on R1 and then redistribute them .But
again question is are we allowed to use multiple process ids in ospf.
Which solution look better from the real lab point of view.
Regards.
Ashok Kumar Verma
CCIP,CCDP,CCNP
Network Consulting Engineer
Customer Advocacy Advanced Service Dep.
Service Provider AS Div.2
Cisco Systems, K.K.Japan.
Tel: +81-3-5324-4583
e-mail: ashoverm@cisco.com
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