From: Ashok Verma \(ashoverm\) (ashoverm@cisco.com)
Date: Fri Mar 26 2004 - 04:24:40 GMT-3
Hi all
For all OSPF gurus.....here is a very good query....
R1--------R2-----R3
Between R2 and R3 ospf area 0 is running, and between R1 and R2 area 3,
On R1 I have a loopback address ( 1.1.1.1) and my requirement is to put
it in area 1. And I should not be using the virtual link. I should have
1.1.1.1 in R3's routing table.Is any way to do it .
As per my views, there are two ways .....
Solution 1: Use Tunnel between R2 and R1 and then assign the tunnel IP
in ospf area 0 ...........But the question is In real lab we are not
allowed to use any extra ip....so can we still use this solution using
the IP unnumberd.( in that case what ip we should be putting in area 0
??)
Solution 2: Use multiple process on R1 and then redistribute them .But
again question is are we allowed to use multiple process ids in ospf.
Which solution look better from the real lab point of view.
Regards.
Ashok Kumar Verma
CCIP,CCDP,CCNP
Network Consulting Engineer
Customer Advocacy Advanced Service Dep.
Service Provider AS Div.2
Cisco Systems, K.K.Japan.
Tel: +81-3-5324-4583
e-mail: ashoverm@cisco.com
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