From: Peter van Oene (pvo@usermail.com)
Date: Wed Mar 24 2004 - 15:44:37 GMT-3
At 11:41 AM 3/24/2004, Ashok Verma \(ashoverm\) wrote:
>One quick question about OSPF,
> area 5 area3
>area 0
> lo0 --------------- R1
>-------------------------------------------------R2---------------------
>-------------------------R3
>
>On R1 I have a loopback and we need to put in area 5,
>
>My question is on R3 can I have this loopback address in routing table
>without using ospf virtual link between R2 and R1
Your diagram didn't come through well and I'm not sure what you intended to
describe. If R3 is already in the OSPF domain, adding the loopback to the
process shouldn't cause any issue. I'm certain there is more here though ;-)
>( as far as I know for nonbackbone( which is not connected to area 0) to
>backbone area you need to use the virtual link ....you can not do using
>the tunnel ineterface....as we do in case of two separated area 0s)
>
>Thanks
>
>Ashok Kumar Verma
>CCIP,CCDP,CCNP
>Network Consulting Engineer
>Customer Advocacy Advanced Service Dep.
>Service Provider AS Div.2
>Cisco Systems, K.K.Japan.
>
>Tel: +81-3-5324-4583
>e-mail: ashoverm@cisco.com
>
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