Ospf question.

From: Ashok Verma \(ashoverm\) (ashoverm@cisco.com)
Date: Wed Mar 24 2004 - 13:41:58 GMT-3

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One quick question about OSPF,
                            area 5 area3
area 0
                lo0 --------------- R1
-------------------------------------------------R2---------------------
-------------------------R3

On R1 I have a loopback and we need to put in area 5,

My question is on R3 can I have this loopback address in routing table
without using ospf virtual link between R2 and R1

( as far as I know for nonbackbone( which is not connected to area 0) to
backbone area you need to use the virtual link ....you can not do using
the tunnel ineterface....as we do in case of two separated area 0s)

Thanks

Ashok Kumar Verma
CCIP,CCDP,CCNP
Network Consulting Engineer
Customer Advocacy Advanced Service Dep.
Service Provider AS Div.2
Cisco Systems, K.K.Japan.

Tel: +81-3-5324-4583
e-mail: ashoverm@cisco.com

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