From: groupstudy@bekmezian.com
Date: Tue Apr 01 2003 - 13:12:13 GMT-3
Based on my research, there is no such thing as RFC 3509.
http://www.ietf.org/iesg/1rfc_index.txt
To answer your question, those two areas will not exchange routes without
some kind of redistribution.
Regards,
George Bekmezian
CCIE# 10704
"Nawaz, Ajaz" <Ajaz.Nawaz@bskyb.com>
Sent by: nobody@groupstudy.com
04/01/2003 06:51 AM
Please respond to
"Nawaz, Ajaz" <Ajaz.Nawaz@bskyb.com>
To
"'McCallum, Robert'" <Robert.McCallum@let-it-be-thus.com>, "'Ccielab'
(E-mail)" <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
cc
Subject
RE: OSPF areas
using one ospf process per abr ?
-----Original Message-----
From: McCallum, Robert [mailto:Robert.McCallum@let-it-be-thus.com]
Sent: 01 April 2003 13:19
To: 'Ccielab' (E-mail)
Subject: OSPF areas
Folks,
Just been reading RFC3509 which clearly states that you do not need to
have
all ospf router areas attaching to the backbone area i.e. you can attach
area 1 and area 2 direct and traffic will flow through this link (without
the use of a virtual link). Has anyone out there actually configured
this,
or has anyone found anything on the cisco website relating to this.
Robert McCallum CCIE #8757
.
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