From: Michael Snyder (msnyder@revolutioncomputer.com)
Date: Mon Feb 17 2003 - 20:03:22 GMT-3
It might work, but I still would apply area 0 to a loopback, just to be
safe.
BTW, you did do a multihop routing test correct? Three connected
routers would have most of the subnets in common.
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Georg Pauwen
Sent: Monday, February 17, 2003 3:49 PM
To: groupstudy@comcast.net; markmiller@alltel.net; sam@munzani.com;
ccielab@groupstudy.com
Cc: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
Subject: RE: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
Hello guys,
Mark is right, you can designate any other area as the backbone area. I
configured a hub router with area 1 and two spoke routers with area 2
and 3,
with each spoke a link to area 1. Works 100% ok, full routing table,
full
reachability.
Regards,
Georg
>From: Joe <groupstudy@comcast.net>
>Reply-To: Joe <groupstudy@comcast.net>
>To: "'Mark Miller'" <markmiller@alltel.net>, "'Sam Munzani'"
><sam@munzani.com>, ccielab@groupstudy.com
>CC: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
>Subject: RE: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>Date: Mon, 17 Feb 2003 14:34:56 -0500
>
>Please send us the link you refer to. I have to say that this is
simply
>not true. You will ONLY send routes from your area, whatever it may
be,
>into area 0, the backbone, so you can't just arbitrarily designate any
>area as the backbone. It MUST be area 0.
>
>Joe
>
>-----Original Message-----
>From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
>Mark Miller
>Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 6:15 PM
>To: Sam Munzani; ccielab@groupstudy.com
>Cc: cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com
>Subject: Re: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>
>
>The routing process in ospf has no concept that "area 0" is the
backbone
>area. You can make it any number you want. I remember reading
>something on this. I'll try to dig it up and send you a link.
>
>Mark Miller
>
>
>----- Original Message -----
>From: "Sam Munzani" <sam@munzani.com>
>To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
>Cc: <cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com>
>Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 12:56 PM
>Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
>
>
> > Team,
> >
> > I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's
> > opinion
>on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
>network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
>network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.
> >
> > When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at
> > all),
>it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF needs
>area 0 to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device with
>area 555 configuration?
> >
> > What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading
> > OSPF
>RFC to figure out all technical details.
> >
> > Thanks,
> > Sam Munzani
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