From: George Cassels (glcassels3@nc.rr.com)
Date: Fri Feb 14 2003 - 16:36:34 GMT-3
From what I know of OSPF you can run it with whatever area number you want
with a single area configuration. If you ever want to have a multi-OSPF
area design though you will have to have an area 0. The main reason for
this is because OSPF is almost like a distance vectored protocol when
routing between areas using the area ID to make sure it has no loops.
Let me know if I am off here anyone...
George Cassels
CW2, US Army
CCDP, CCNP, MCSE (4.0, 2000)
----- Original Message -----
From: "Sam Munzani" <sam@munzani.com>
To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Cc: <cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 1:56 PM
Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
> Team,
>
> I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's opinion
on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.
>
> When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at all),
it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF needs area 0
to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device with area 555
configuration?
>
> What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading OSPF
RFC to figure out all technical details.
>
> Thanks,
> Sam Munzani
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