From: Ryan B (ryanb@pobox.com)
Date: Fri Feb 14 2003 - 16:39:30 GMT-3
You can configure OSPF with no area 0, the catch is that you must have an
area 0 if you want to connect sepreate areas, and all areas must be
connected to area 0 (either directly or through virtual links). Think about
what would happen if OSPF had to have an area 0 to function - if you lost
connectivity to your area 0 then you would have no routing.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Sam Munzani" <sam@munzani.com>
To: <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Cc: <cciesecurity@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, February 14, 2003 10:56 AM
Subject: Can you have OSPF without area 0 at all?
> Team,
>
> I came across an interesting finding. I want to take everybody's opinion
on this before putting anything in production. We are building an OSPF
network that will eventually merge with company's main OSPF backbone
network. The core group has assigned us ospf area number 555.
>
> When I configure all my routers with OSPF area 555(with no area 0 at all),
it seems to be building up routing table. I always thought OSPF needs area 0
to function. Will this work of we add a non cisco device with area 555
configuration?
>
> What is the catch 22 in this configuration? I have started reading OSPF
RFC to figure out all technical details.
>
> Thanks,
> Sam Munzani
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