From: Justin Menga (Justin.Menga@nz.logical.com)
Date: Mon Dec 09 2002 - 23:12:12 GMT-3
Hi,
When you have configured authentication for area 0, your virtual links need
to be configured for authentication. The catch is that the non-area 0
router must have an "area 0 authentication" command configured, even though
no physical interfaces are in area 0. The transit area is independent of
the virtual link, so you do not need to use authentication for the transit
area.
E.g.
Backbone Router:
area 0 authentication message-digest
area 1 virtual-link x.x.x.x message 1 md5 cisco
Non-backbone Router
area 0 authentication message-digest
area 1 virtual-link x.x.x.x message 1 md5 cisco
Regards,
Justin Menga CCIE #6640 (R/S + Security)
-----Original Message-----
From: Raymond [mailto:maksir919@yahoo.com]
Sent: Monday, December 09, 2002 7:44 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: OSPF authentication
Hi all,
I have confused on ospf virtual-link authentication configurations.
1. If the question says area 0 need authentication, but not mention
virtual-link need authentication; In my understanding, virtual-link also
need authentication as well.
Suppose it is MD5, should I use i/ii?
i. area 1 virtual-link x.x.x.x authentication message
area 1 virtual-link x.x.x.x message 1 md5 cisco
ii. area 1 virtual-link x.x.x.x message 1 md5 cisco
Thanks you very much
Ray
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