From: ca_vices (ca_vices@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri May 17 2002 - 16:27:26 GMT-3
Can you paste the configs on both your routers..??
Nevin
Sam.MicroGate@usa.telekom.de wrote:
Which command does produce the "area 0 inactive"?
Sam
-----Original Message-----
From: CCIE-Maillist [mailto:CCIE-Maillist@foxgal.com]
Sent: Friday, May 17, 2002 11:59 AM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: area 0 inactive - okay?
Is it okay if a router says that OSPF area 0 is inactive as long as
everything is working?
I have a router in area 5, connected to a router with interfaces in area 0.
The adj. forms and is full. There are no errors on authenication. As the
router in area 5 is connected to a router with interfaces in area 0, it does
not need a virtual link (as I understand it).
When the router is in area 5, everything seems to work- routes from area 0
area on this router and it can communicate fine. The router in area 0 has
the routes from area 5 and even redistributed routers from the RIP network
connected to area 5. Everyone can communicate fine but the router in area 5
says that area 0 is inactive.
I tried moving the router in area 5 and changing the area to area 0,
everything worked fine and area 0 was active, using the same router ids, and
network statements (modified for area 0).
So, my question is- is it every okay for a router to say that "area 0 is
inactive"?
Thanks for the help!
David Davis
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