Re: Redistribute ospf1-> ospf2->rip

From: jonatale@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
Date: Sun Mar 17 2002 - 19:52:28 GMT-3


   
why is 1. a reguirement?

Chua, Parry wrote:

> Hi,
>
> There is a couple of config problem in the orginal posting.
>
> 1. If you redistribute ospf1 to ospf2, the ospf 2 also must run with
> area 0.
> 2. If the redistribute network to RIP is on different classful address,
> a resultant classful network will be in RIP network.
>
> May be I miss out something.
>
> Regards
> Parry
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Leonardo Pereira [mailto:lpereira@br.ibm.com]
> Sent: Thursday, January 10, 2002 2:06 AM
> To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> Subject: Re: Redistribute ospf1-> ospf2->rip
>
> Hi Everybody !!!
>
> I was just listening until now, but now I resolved to give my 2 cents
> (like
> you guys say... :-D ).
> My lab is scheduled to February 19th and I was studying this yesterday.
> It
> seems to me that you are doing the summarization in a wrong way. You
> didnot
> send the ip address configured in your R2's Ethernet 0, but I am
> supposing
> that it is configured with a 24 bit mask because the other Ethernet 0 at
> R1. So, when you try to redistribute from ospf to rip you should
> summarize
> with a 24 bit mask and not 16 bit mask as you are doing.
>
> You can see a great explanation about this at:
> http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/105/54.html
>
> So the summary-address, IMHO, should be:
> summary-address 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0
>
> Try this and let us know if it works.
>
> Regards,
> Leonardo.



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